BIO 110 Test 2_Practice

 

 

           1.           How does polyploidy differ from aneuploidy?

a.

Polyploidy involves diploid chromosome sets, while aneuploidy involves haploid sets.

b.

Polyploidy involves changes in entire chromosome sets; aneuploidy involves less than a diploid set of chromosomes.

c.

Polyploidy involves monosomy; aneuploidy involves trisomy.

d.

Polyploidy is produced by translocations; aneuploidy by nondisjunction.

e.

None of these is true.

 

 

           2.           The two most common types of polyploidy in humans are:

a.

trisomy and aneuploidy

b.

triploidy and haploidy

c.

triploidy and tetraploidy

d.

tetraploidy and diploidy

e.

haploidy and diploidy

 

 

           3.           If the haploid chromosome set can be described as ABC, then the chromosome constitution AAABBCC is:

a.

euploid

b.

haploid

c.

tetraploid

d.

trisomic

e.

monosomic

 

 

           4.           The risk for Down syndrome increases in situations where the:

a.

mother is 20-29 years old

b.

father is 35-50 years old

c.

mother is 35-45 years old

d.

father is 20-29 years old

e.

both parents are 30-35 years old

 

 

           5.           If nondisjunction takes place in the first meiotic division, the four products of meiosis will include:

a.

two normal and two abnormal karyotypes

b.

four abnormal karyotypes

c.

three normal and one abnormal karyotype

d.

four normal karyotypes

e.

none of these

 

 

           6.           In trisomy 21, most nondisjunction events take place during female meiosis rather than male meiosis. What might be one factor that can account for this difference?

a.

Female meiosis is more difficult than male because the gamete is much larger.

b.

Female meiosis takes place in a very short time.

c.

Male meiosis takes place over a long period of time.

d.

Female meiosis takes place over a long time period.

e.

None of these is true.

 

 

           7.           Studies on aneuploidies of the sex chromosomes reveal that:

a.

The X chromosome is not necessary for survival.

b.

The Y chromosome is not necessary for survival.

c.

Two copies of the X chromosome are necessary for survival.

d.

Two copies of the Y chromosome are fatal.

e.

None of these is true.

 

 

           8.           Amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling are two methods of prenatal diagnosis. One important difference between these techniques is:

a.

Chorionic villus sampling is safer than amniocentesis.

b.

Amniocentesis can diagnose chromosome disorders; chorionic villus sampling cannot.

c.

Chorionic villus sampling can be performed earlier than amniocentesis.

d.

Chorionic villus sampling can diagnose chromosome disorders; amniocentesis cannot.

e.

Amniocentesis can be performed earlier than chorionic villus sampling.

 

 

           9.           A translocation involving chromosome 21 can result in:

a.

a risk for Down syndrome independent of maternal age

b.

a risk for Down syndrome dependent on paternal age

c.

no increased risk outside of maternal age

d.

lowering the risk of Down syndrome

e.

no change in the risk for Down syndrome

 

 

           10.         Fragile sites are chromosome locations that:

a.

show an increased number of chromosome bands

b.

show a decreased number of chromosome bands

c.

are all associated with a specific defective phenotype

d.

indicate that carriers are mentally retarded

e.

are inherited in a codominant fashion

 

 

           11.         The placement of chromosomes into one of the seven groups in a karyotype is based on the chromosome's:

a.

size

b.

centromere position

c.

banding pattern

d.

size and centromere position only

e.

all of these

 

 

           12.         Which one of the following chromosomes is never found to be trisomic in live births?

a.

8

b.

13

c.

16

d.

18

e.

21

 

 

           13.         When making a karyotype, what is the effect of placing lymphocytes in a low salt solution?

a.

It makes the chromosomes more visible.

b.

It initiates cell division.

c.

It stops the cells in metaphase.

d.

It helps separate the chromosomes.

e.

It causes the cells to swell.

 

 

           14.         The letters G, Q, R, and C are used to describe bands that appear on chromosomes. The letters refer to:

a.

the position of the bands

b.

the staining procedure used to reveal the bands

c.

the size of the bands

d.

the types of genes found within the bands

e.

the relative importance of the bands in karyotyping

 

 

           15.         Chromosome painting is a relatively new technique in karyotype analysis. Which one of the following statements about chromosome painting is false?

a.

It is done to make abnormalities easier to detect.

b.

The dyes used to create color are fluorescent dyes.

c.

The dyes are attached to DNA sequences.

d.

In a normal karyotype each chromosome appears with bands of different colors.

e.

Each of the 24 different chromosome types has a unique appearance.

 

 

           16.         Why are amniocentesis and CVS not routinely recommended procedures?

a.

There is a small risk of maternal infection.

b.

There is a small risk of inducing spontaneous abortion.

c.

There is a small risk of maternal infection and a small risk of inducing spontaneous abortion.

d.

They are not generally available due to the expense and expertise required.

e.

The frequency of inaccurate results is high.

 

 

           17.         Most triploid zygotes arise from:

a.

fertilization of a diploid egg by a normal haploid sperm

b.

fertilization of a normal haploid egg by a diploid sperm

c.

fertilization of a normal haploid egg by two sperm

d.

nondisjunction during the zygote's first mitotic division

e.

fusion of the zygote with an unfertilized egg

 

 

           18.         Which one of the following pairings of an aneuploidy and the syndrome it causes is incorrectly matched?

a.

X-chromosome monosomy (X and no Y) causes Turner syndrome.

b.

X-chromosome trisomy causes Klinefelter syndrome.

c.

Trisomy-21 causes Down syndrome.

d.

Trisomy-18 causes Edward syndrome.

e.

Trisomy-13 causes Patau syndrome.

 

 

           19.         Which one of the following involves no net loss of genetic material?

a.

chromosome inversion

b.

Robertsonian translocation

c.

chromosome deletion

d.

uniparental disomy

e.

both chromosome inversion and uniparental disomy

 

 

           20.         Characterize the frequency of changes in chromosome number in humans.

a.

Close to half of all conceptions are aneuploid.

b.

They are a major cause of reproductive failure.

c.

The frequency rises significantly among other mammals.

d.

All of these.

e.

None of these.

 

 

           21.         Noninvasive prenatal diagnosis of genetic abnormalities is done by

a.

ultrasound examination

b.

Xrays

c.

isolation of fetal cells or DNA from the mother’s urine

d.

isolation of fetal cells or DNA from the mother’s blood

e.

all of these

 

 

           22.         Which one of the following is a genetic disease caused by a copy number variation?

a.

Charcot-Marie-Tooth syndrome

b.

retinoblastoma

c.

chronic myelogenous leukemia

d.

Prader-Willi syndrome

e.

Edwards syndrome

 

 

           23.         Implantation of an embryo normally has occurred by how long after fertilization?

a.

3 days

b.

6 days

c.

12 days

d.

20 days

e.

1 month

 

 

           24.         The leading preventable cause of birth defects is exposure of the fetus to:

a.

X-rays

b.

cigarette smoke

c.

alcohol

d.

herpes virus

e.

mercury

 

 

           25.         The phenotypic sex depends most directly on:

a.

the presence of a Y chromosome

b.

the presence of the number of active X chromosomes

c.

the development of the ovaries

d.

the influence of hormones

e.

the degeneration of the Müllerian duct

 

 

           26.         The function of the polar bodies produced in the ovaries is to:

a.

Develop into eggs.

b.

Surround and protect the egg.

c.

Attract sperm cells to the egg.

d.

Produce reproductive hormones.

e.

They are non-functional.

 

 

           27.         Androgen insensitivity individuals are abnormal because:

a.

Their Müllerian ducts do not develop.

b.

Their testes do not produce testosterone.

c.

They have no Wolffian ducts.

d.

They are missing a receptor protein for testosterone.

e.

Their SRY gene is abnormal.

 

 

           28.         The undifferentiated genitalia of an early human embryo develops:

a.

from the Müllerian duct system

b.

into male genitalia under the influence of testosterone

c.

into male genitalia under the influence of DHT

d.

into male genitalia under the influence of testosterone and DHT

e.

Müllerian duct inhibitor

 

 

           29.         Being genetically male in humans depends primarily on:

a.

the presence of a Y chromosome

b.

the presence of only one X chromosome

c.

the ratio of X chromosomes to Y chromosomes

d.

the absence of Barr bodies

e.

none of these

 

 

           30.         Fructose and prostaglandins are added to semen by the:

a.

seminal vesicles

b.

prostate gland

c.

bulbourethral gland

d.

epididymis

e.

vas deferens

 

 

           31.         The presence of a Y chromosome in an early embryo causes:

a.

the embryonic ovary to become a testis

b.

the Wolffian duct system to degenerate

c.

the Müllerian duct system to develop

d.

both duct systems to develop

e.

the indifferent gonad to become a testis

 

 

           32.         An important role of the hormone oxytocin in reproduction is that it stimulates:

a.

meiosis

b.

ovulation

c.

implantation of the embryo

d.

development of the fetal heart

e.

contraction of uterine muscles during childbirth

 

 

           33.         In dosage compensation, females have the same amount of X-linked gene products as males. This is brought about by:

a.

loss of one X chromosome from all somatic cells in females

b.

accelerated production by genes on the Y chromosome

c.

lowered rate of synthesis by genes on the X chromosome

d.

inactivation of one X chromosome in all somatic cells of females

e.

none of these

 

 

           34.         Sex-influenced traits are:

a.

carried on the X chromosome and subject to dosage compensation

b.

expressed more in males than in females

c.

expressed in relation to hormone levels in male and females

d.

expressed only in one sex

e.

always expressed traits

 

 

           35.         The chambers in the ovary in which oocytes develop are called:

a.

oviducts

b.

labia

c.

polar bodies

d.

follicles

e.

oogonia

 

 

           36.         What important event in embryonic development occurs 6-7 days after fertilization?

a.

Organ systems begin to take shape.

b.

A blastocoel forms, converting the morula into a blastocyst.

c.

The blastocyst implants in the endometrium.

d.

Chorionic villi begin to form.

e.

The yolk sac begins to form.

 

 

           37.         Normally, only one sperm fertilizes an egg. What role do other sperm play?

a.

They assist the fertilizing sperm in penetrating the egg.

b.

They trigger chemical changes in the egg.

c.

They dissolve the outer barriers surrounding the oocyte.

d.

They assist the fertilizing sperm in penetrating the egg and trigger chemical changes in the egg.

e.

They trigger chemical changes in the egg and dissolve the outer barriers surrounding the oocyte.

 

 

           38.         During ovulation, the oocyte leaves the ovary

a.

through the bloodstream

b.

when the follicle it is in ruptures

c.

through a duct leading to the Fallopian tube

d.

when the ovary contracts

e.

by using cilia on its surface

 

 

           39.         Which one of the following divide by mitosis?

a.

oogonia

b.

primary spermatocytes

c.

secondary oocytes

d.

spermatids

e.

all of the above

 

 

           40.         The basic unit of a DNA molecule is the:

a.

nitrogenous base

b.

sugar-phosphate backbone

c.

amino acid

d.

nucleotide

e.

ribose sugar

 

 

           41.         Hershey and Chase's experiment with radioactively labeled viruses made use of the fact that protein but not DNA contains:

a.

phosphorus

b.

iron

c.

sulfur

d.

nitrogen

e.

potassium

 

 

           42.         Who discovered the transformation of bacteria from non-virulent to virulent?

a.

Miescher

b.

Avery and his colleagues

c.

Franklin

d.

Griffith

e.

Watson and Crick

 

 

           43.         The results of the experiments of Avery and his colleagues indicate that:

a.

Proteins are antigens.

b.

Proteins transfer genetic information.

c.

Capsule formation is mediated by RNA.

d.

DNA is the transforming material.

e.

DNA replication is semiconservative.

 

 

           44.         Chargaff found several facts about the base composition of DNA. One of these rules is:

a.

The amount of purines is half the amount of pyrimidines.

b.

There is a 2:1 relationship between purines and pyrimidines.

c.

The amount of A equals the amount of G.

d.

There is a 1:1 relationship between A and T.

e.

DNA contains no thymidine.

 

 

           45.         In the Watson-Crick model of DNA, the polynucleotide chains are:

a.

of unequal length

b.

both oriented in the same direction

c.

arranged with the bases on the outside

d.

built with the nucleotides as the backbone

e.

oriented in opposite directions

 

 

           46.         The term describing bases that pair with each other is:

a.

complementary

b.

antiparallel

c.

identical

d.

covalent

e.

bond forming

 

 

           47.         In Frederick Griffith's classic experiments:

a.

Mice injected with strain R cells died of pneumonia.

b.

Mice injected with strain S cells died of pneumonia.

c.

Mice injected with live strain R cells and heat-killed strain S cells died of pneumonia.

d.

Mice injected with strain S cells, or live strain R cells and heat-killed strain S cells died of pneumonia.

e.

Mice injected with strain R cells, or live strain R cells and heat-killed strain S cells died of pneumonia.

 

 

           48.         The polynucleotide strands of DNA are held together by:

a.

covalent bonds

b.

hydrogen bonds

c.

nitrogen-containing bases

d.

purines

e.

the purine's double helix

 

 

           49.         RNA differs from DNA in:

a.

its single-stranded nature

b.

the type of sugar found in the nucleotide

c.

the types of pyrimidine bases

d.

the type of sugar found in the nucleotide, the types of pyrimidine bases, and its single-stranded nature

e.

the types of pyrimidine bases and its single-stranded nature only

 

 

           50.         What is the significance of hydrogen bonds in the shape of biological molecules?

a.

They are the strong bonds that join the atoms of the molecules to each other.

b.

They are weak bonds that join the atoms of the molecules to each other.

c.

They are weak bonds that play no role in the shape of biological molecules.

d.

They are weak bonds that help determine the shape of many molecules because there are so many of them.

e.

Hydrogen bonds are only of significance in DNA.

 

 

           51.         What is the current status of DNA vaccines?

a.

None has been successfully created.

b.

Several have been created but have been found to be ineffective.

c.

Several have shown promise in animal studies and are now in clinical trials.

d.

Several have passed clinical trials and are awaiting government approval.

e.

They are in limited use against a small number of diseases.

 

 

           52.         X-ray diffraction studies revealed several important features of the shape of DNA. Which one of the following facts about DNA was NOT revealed by X-ray diffraction studies?

a.

The shape of the molecule is helical.

b.

The amount of purine bases equals the amount of pyrimidine bases.

c.

The molecule has a constant diameter.

d.

The phosphate groups are located on the outside.

e.

All of these information was revealed by X-ray diffraction studies.

 

 

           53.         The number of base pairs in the human genome is about

a.

320 million

b.

3.2 billion

c.

32 billion

d.

320 billion

e.

3.2 trillion

 

 

           54.         Telomerase

a.

keeps the ends of chromosomes from shortening during replication

b.

is absent in most somatic cells

c.

is active in most cancer cells

d.

all of the above

e.

none of the above

 

 

           55.         All amino acids are characterized by:

a.

an amino group and a peptide bond

b.

a carboxyl group and a peptide bond

c.

the presence of two R groups

d.

an amino group and a carboxyl group

e.

none of these

 

 

           56.         Which one of the following is NOT required for transcription?

a.

RNA polymerase

b.

DNA.

c.

Uracil nucleotides.

d.

Ribosomes.

e.

All of these are needed for transcription.

 

 

           57.         Peptide bonds form between:

a.

two amino groups

b.

two carboxyl groups

c.

one carboxyl group and one R group

d.

one amino group and one carboxyl group

e.

one R group and one amino group

 

 

           58.         The primary structure of a protein is:

a.

determined by the interaction of R groups

b.

interaction with other polypeptide chains

c.

the amino acid sequence

d.

bonds formed with other proteins

e.

none of these

 

 

           59.         How many different amino acids could be coded by a repeating RNA polymer composed of UA (UAUAUAUAUA...)?

a.

one

b.

two

c.

three

d.

four

e.

five

 

 

           60.         What is the fate of the introns in pre-mRNA?

a.

They are translated into polypeptides.

b.

They are discarded.

c.

They are processed into tRNA.

d.

They are converted into exons.

e.

They are reused in other pre-mRNA molecules.

 

 

           61.         Two tRNA molecules occupy sites in a ribosome. The amino acids they carry are joined by a peptide bond. What is the very next event that occurs?

a.

The tRNA in the first site detaches and leaves the ribosome.

b.

A third tRNA enters the ribosome.

c.

The tRNA in the second site deataches and leaves the ribosome.

d.

The large subunit leaves the ribosome.

e.

A new amino acid is joined to the tRNA in the first site.

 

 

           62.         The tRNA molecule has been called an adaptor molecule because:

a.

It binds to both DNA and RNA.

b.

It recognizes both RNA and an amino acid.

c.

All tRNA molecules have been modified from mRNA.

d.

It binds to both amino acids and DNA.

e.

It adapts to changes in the mRNA codons.

 

 

           63.         The most complete list of components needed for initiation and elongation of translation includes:

a.

tRNA, mRNA, and amino acids

b.

tRNA, DNA, and ribosomes

c.

the large ribosomal subunit, tRNA, and mRNA

d.

both ribosomal subunits, tRNA with attached amino acids, and mRNA

e.

small ribosomal subunit, methionine, and mRNA

 

 

           64.         The quaternary level of protein structure involves:

a.

folding of the primary structure upon itself

b.

the number of peptide bonds in a polypeptide chain

c.

substitutions in the amino acid sequence

d.

interactions with other polypeptide chains

e.

none of these

 

 

           65.         Archibald Garrod's work on alkaptonuria characterized it as an "inborn error of metabolism" causing an abnormal build-up of alkapton. He concluded that the build-up occurred because people with alkaptonuria:

a.

produce much more alkapton than normal people

b.

have an enzyme that normal people do not have

c.

cannot convert alkapton into other products, as normal people can

d.

have a kidney defect making their urine abnormal

e.

produce much more alkapton than normal people and have an enzyme that normal people do not have

 

 

           66.         A string of 30 to 100 adenine nucleotides:

a.

is found in the promoter region of all genes

b.

is the sequence of which introns are composed

c.

is found at the 3'-end of all tRNAs

d.

is found in the terminator region of all genes

e.

is added to the 3'-end on mRNA during RNA processing

 

 

           67.         Which one of the following correctly describes the direction of translation?

a.

DNA is read 3'-to-5' and RNA is synthesized 5'-to-3'.

b.

DNA is read 3'-to-5' and RNA is synthesized 3'-to-5'.

c.

DNA is read 5'-to-3' and RNA is synthesized 3'-to-5'.

d.

DNA is read 5'-to-3' and RNA is synthesized 5'-to-3'.

e.

The direction varies in different genes.

 

 

           68.         Which of the following statements about tRNAs and their amino acids is correct?

a.

Any tRNA can carry only one type of amino acid.

b.

Amino acids attach to the tRNAs at the anticodon.

c.

Amino acids attach to the tRNAs at the end opposite the anticodon.

d.

A and B are both correct.

e.

A and C are both correct.

 

 

           69.         Which one of the following is NOT a component of the translation initiation complex?

a.

Small ribosome subunit.

b.

Large ribosome subunit.

c.

mRNA.

d.

tRNA.

e.

All of these are components of the initiation complex.

 

 

           70.         Post-translational modification of polypeptides includes:

a.

attaching lipids to the polypeptides

b.

attaching sugar to the polypeptides

c.

chemically changing some amino acids

d.

removal of some amino acids

e.

all of these

 

 

           71.         Which of the following occur(s) in a cell’s nucleus?

a.

transcription

b.

RNA processing

c.

translation

d.

transcription and RNA processing

e.

all of the above

 

 

           72.         Chromatin remodeling works by

a.

removing certain genes’ promoters

b.

eliminating the histone core in certain nucleosomes

c.

loosining or tightening the binding between DNA and histones

d.

increasing or decreasing the number of coils of DNA around each histone core

e.

removing certain amino acids from the histones

 

 

           73.         Which one of the following statements about DNA methylation is FALSE?

a.

It turns genes off.

b.

It adds methyl groups to the adenine and guanine (purine) bases.

c.

It increases binding of DNA to non-histone proteins.

d.

It has been associated with cancer.

e.

It has been associated with X chromosome inactivation

 

 

           74.         The work of Garrod suggested that:

a.

DNA was the genetic material.

b.

Transformation requires DNA.

c.

Phenylalanine is an essential amino acid.

d.

Heredity and metabolism are related.

e.

Mendel was wrong.

 

 

           75.         In metabolic pathways:

a.

Enzymes convert amino acids into proteins.

b.

Proteins are synthesized.

c.

Enzymes convert substrates or precursors into products.

d.

Enzyme deficiencies have no effects.

e.

None of these occurs.

 

 

           76.         Phenylketonuria is caused by:

a.

the accumulation of tyrosine

b.

the lack of synthesis of phenylalanine

c.

normal enzyme activity, but a lack of phenylalanine in the diet

d.

the accumulation of phenylalanine

e.

an excess of phenylalanine hydroxylase

 

 

           77.         Which one of the following is NOT a symptom of PKU?

a.

unusually light colored hair and skin

b.

"musty" body odor

c.

jerky arm and leg movements

d.

mental retardation

e.

vomiting and digestive upset

 

 

           78.         Dietary treatment of galactosemia:

a.

need not begin until one or two months after birth

b.

requires a low protein diet

c.

can be discontinued by the age 10-12

d.

completely eliminates symptoms of the disease

e.

none of these

 

 

           79.         The hemoglobin molecule:

a.

has four subunits of two types

b.

has two subunits that can be formed from four types

c.

is involved in amino acid metabolism

d.

acts as a cell surface receptor

e.

is controlled by a single gene

 

 

           80.         In sickle cell anemia, the molecular defect is caused by:

a.

changes in length of the polypeptide chain

b.

substitution of one amino acid in the alpha chain

c.

substitution of one amino acid in the beta chain

d.

a translocation event

e.

a lack of heme groups

 

 

           81.         Results from the study of globin variants indicates that:

a.

All amino acid substitutions cause severe phenotypic effects.

b.

The alteration of one amino acid can cause a genetic disease.

c.

Extended chains do not function to carry oxygen.

d.

All mutations in globin are caused by changes in amino acids.

e.

None of these is indicated.

 

 

           82.         Thalassemias are most often caused by:

a.

amino acid substitutions

b.

extended chains in alpha or beta globin

c.

lowered or absent synthesis of alpha or beta globin

d.

excessive synthesis of alpha or beta globin

e.

C and D are both correct.

 

 

           83.         The existence of differential drug sensitivity serves to reinforce the idea that:

a.

Many people carry genetic defects.

b.

Each individual is biologically and biochemically unique.

c.

Drugs need to be more closely regulated.

d.

Metabolic blocks are a widespread phenomenon.

e.

None of these is reinforced.

 

 

           84.         Which one of the following genetic disorders cannot be treated by dietary modifications?

a.

phenylketonuria

b.

genetic goitrous cretinism

c.

galactosemia

d.

maple syrup urine disease

e.

homocystinuria

 

 

           85.         The nervous system damage symptomatic of untreated PKU is due to:

a.

Too much phenylalanine being transported into nerve cells.

b.

Too few of the other seven neutral amino acids being transported into nerve cells.

c.

Accumulation of the breakdown products of phenylalanine in nerve cells

d.

None of these

e.

It is not clearly known

 

 

           86.         What substance accumulates in the blood of people with galactosemia?

a.

galactose

b.

glucose

c.

lactose

d.

galactose-1-phosphate

e.

UDP galactose

 

 

           87.         What is the nature of the genetic mutation that causes lactose intolerance?

a.

It is a dominant mutation that prevents lactase production.

b.

It is a dominant mutation that causes a decline in adult lactase levels.

c.

It is a recessive mutation that prevents lactase production.

d.

It is a recessive mutation that causes a decline in adult lactase levels.

e.

It is an X-linked mutation that prevents lactase production.

 

 

           88.         What actually happens to the blood cells of people with sickle cell anemia that causes the cells to change their shape ("sickle")?

a.

Polymerization of hemoglobin molecules into long fibers.

b.

Destruction of the hemoglobin molecules.

c.

Loss of hemoglobin through leaky cell membranes.

d.

Attachment of phosphate groups to the hemoglobin molecules.

e.

It is not known.

 

 

           89.         Which one of the following statements about the genetically determined ability to taste PTC is false?

a.

The inability to taste PTC is recessive.

b.

The relative frequency of tasters and non-tasters differs in different populations.

c.

Tasters are more likely than non-tasters to like foods such as black coffee, dark beer, anchovies, and strong cheeses.

d.

Modifying genes appear to affect the threshold of taste sensitivity.

e.

This trait is determined by a single gene.

 

 

           90.         Which one of the following is NIT a symptom of sickle cell anemia?

a.

weakness

b.

kidney failure

c.

bone loss

d.

abdominal pain

e.

heart failure

 

 

           91.         Regarding the ability to taste PTC, individuals characterized as “supertasters”

a.

have genotypes TT or Tt

b.

have intensely negative reactions to PTC

c.

have about the same number of taste buds as tasters or nontasters

d.

are less sensitive to capsaicin than nontasters

e.

all of the above

____________________________________________________________________________

                Answer Section


1. ANS: B

2. ANS: C

3. ANS: D

4. ANS: C

5. ANS: B

6. ANS: D

7. ANS: B

8. ANS: C

9. ANS: A

10. ANS: E

11. ANS: D

12. ANS: C

13. ANS: E

14. ANS: B

15. ANS: D

16. ANS: C

17. ANS: C

18. ANS: B

19. ANS: E

20. ANS: D

21. ANS: D

22. ANS: A

23. ANS: B

24. ANS: C

25. ANS: D

26. ANS: E

27. ANS: D

28. ANS: D

29. ANS: A

30. ANS: A

31. ANS: E

32. ANS: E

33. ANS: D

34. ANS: C

35. ANS: D

36. ANS: C

37. ANS: E

38. ANS: B

39. ANS: A

40. ANS: D

41. ANS: C

42. ANS: D

43. ANS: D

44. ANS: D

45. ANS: E

46. ANS: A

47. ANS: D

48. ANS: B

49. ANS: D

50. ANS: D

51. ANS: C

52. ANS: B

53. ANS: B

54. ANS: D

55. ANS: D

56. ANS: D

57. ANS: D

58. ANS: C

59. ANS: B

60. ANS: B

61. ANS: A

62. ANS: B

63. ANS: D

64. ANS: D

65. ANS: C

66. ANS: E

67. ANS: A

68. ANS: E

69. ANS: E

70. ANS: E

71. ANS: D

72. ANS: C

73. ANS: B

74. ANS: D

75. ANS: C

76. ANS: D

77. ANS: E

78. ANS: E

79. ANS: A

80. ANS: C

81. ANS: B

82. ANS: E

83. ANS: B

84. ANS: B

85. ANS: E

86. ANS: D

87. ANS: D

88. ANS: A

89. ANS: C

90. ANS: C

91. ANS: B
 

 

                                      

 

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